Showing posts with label BSNL Examination Question Paper. Show all posts
Showing posts with label BSNL Examination Question Paper. Show all posts

Saturday, March 15, 2008

BSNL JTO sample aptitude reasoning questions Paper

BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination
Test Paper - VIII
1. When a inductive coil connected to a 200 V, 50Hz ac supply with 10A current flowing through it dissipates 1000 watts then which of the following will have least value in ohms-
a.) Resistance
b.) Reactance
c.) Impedance
d.) None

2 Oscillator crystal are made of –
a.) Silicon
b.) Germanium
c.) Quartz
d.) None

3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is-
a. )Air
b. )Ferrite
c.) Powdered ion
d.) Steel

4. If we have a parallel plate capacitor of plate area 'A' and plate separatoin t and having a capacity C and a metallic plate r of area A and of negligible thickness is introduced in the capacitor at a distance from either of the two plates as shown in the given figure then the capacity of the capacitor will become –
a.)
b.)C
c.)2C
d.)4C

5. A superconductor is a –
a.)A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b.)A conductor having zero resistance
c.)A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
d.)A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

6. When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
a)8.05 pF
b)10.05pF
c.)16.01pF
d.)20.01pF

7. Sparking occur when a load is switched off because the circuit has high –
a.)Inductance
b.)Capacitance
c.)Resistance
d.)None

8. Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a –
a.)Resistance in the line
b.)Capacitor in series with contacts
c.)Capacitor in parallel with contacts
d.)None

9. RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –
a.)Class 'A'
b.)Class 'b'
c.)Class 'C'
d.)None

10. The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –
a.)High positive
b.)High negative
c.)Low positive
d.)Zero

11. The input gate current of a FET is –
a.)a few microamperes
b.)negligibly small
c.)a few milliamperes
d.)a few amperes

12. In the following fig. with R = 30k, the value of current through 2 K resistor is –
a.)25 mA
b.)40 mA
c.)25/16 mA
d.)10 mA

13. A step recovery diode –
a.)has on extremely short recovery time
b.)conducts equally well in both directions
c.)is mainly used as a harmonic generator
d.)is an ideal rectifiers of high frequency signals

14. In order to get maximum undistorted output signal from CE amplifier with VCC 10V, the value of VCE (Q) should be approximately-
a.)0.1V
b.)5V
c.)10V
d) V

15. In a FET the electrode, which corresponds to collector in bipolar transistor, is –
a.)source
b.)drain
c.)gate
d.)none

16. The device which acts like an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base and emitter to collector is –
a.)Triac
b.)UJT
c.)Diac
d.)SCR

17. A typical optical fibre has –
a.)High refractive index core and low refractive index cladding
b.)Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding
c.)Both a and b
d.)None

18. In the following figure circuit diagram of an op-amp based is shown. The ratio is equal to –
a.)9
b.)11
c.)10
d.)21

19. When a loud speaker is connected across the terminals A and B of the network shown in the fig. then its impedance to obtain maximum power dissipation in it will be –
a.)3 – j1
b.)3 + j9
c.)7.5 + j 2.5
d.)7.5 – j 2.5
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20. In the lattice network, the value of R for the maximum power transfer to the load –
a.)5
b.)6.5
c.)8
d.)9

21. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (Z0 is the characteristic impedance, Ö is the propagation constant and l is the length of the line-
a.)Z0 cot h Öl
b.)Z0 cot Öl
c.)Z0 tan h.Ö l
d.) Z0 tan Öl

22. The approximate thickness of the radome wall should be –
a.)l
b.)l/4
c.)l/2
d.)l/
23 A relatively permanent information is stored in
a. )ROM
b.)RAM
c.)PROM
d.)Volatile memory


24. The rise time of the RC network shown in the given figure is approximately equal to –
b.) RC
c.) 2RC
d.) 4RC

25. If in the network shown in the fig. initially a steady state is attained by closing the switch 's' and then if the switch is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) through the inductor will be –
a.) cos50tA
b.) 2A
c.) 2cos100tA
d.) 2sin50tA

26. When the p network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R1, R2 and R3 will be respectively –
a) 9W, 6W and 6W
b.) 6W, 6W and 9W
c.) 9W, 6W and 9W
d.) 6W, 9W and 6W

27. When the impedance matrices of a two port networks are given by and , then if these two networks are connected in series then the impedance matrix of the resulting two-port network will be –
d.) indeterminate

28. Joule/coulomb is the unit of -
a.) Electric field potential
b.) Potential
c .) Charge
d.) None of the above

29. The electric field line and equipotential lines-
a.) Are parallel to each other
b.)Are one and same
c.) Cut each other orthogonally
d.)Can be inclined to each other at any angle

30. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (When Z0 is the characteristic impendence g is the propagation constant and L is the length of the line

31. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed-
a.) In the +x direction
b.) In the –x direction
c. ) In the +y direction
d.) In the –y direction

32. The directions of and in TEM mode transmission line with respect to the direction of propagation are-
a.) Both and are transverse to the direction of propagation
b.) is and are transverse and h has a component in the direction of propagation
c.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation
d.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation

33. The lowest TM mode in a rectangular waveguide of cross –section a x b with a>b will be-
a.) TM01
b.)TE10
c.) TM112
d.)TE11

34. When a transmitter in a free space radiates a mean power of ‘p’ watts uniformly in all directions then at a distance d sufficiently far from the source in plane the electric field E should be related to p and d as –


35. When a dipole antenna was radiating with some excitation in free space radiating a certain amount of the power v if then this antenna is immersed in a lake where water is non-dissipative but has a dielectric constant of 81, then the radiated power with the same excitation will be
a.) Decrease to finite non-zero value
b.)Remain the same
c. )Increase
d.)Decrease to zero

36. When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
b.)An inductance at the load
c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
d.)none of the above

37. As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –
a.) less accurate
b.) more accurate
c.) equally accurate
d.) none.

38. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –
a.) VTVM
b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c.) Moving iron voltmeter
d.) Digital multimeter

39. Which of the following statement is true about two wattmeter method for power measurement in three phase current ?
a.) power can be measured using two wattmeter method only for star connected three phase circuits.
b.) when two meter show indentical readings, in the power factor is 0.5.
c.) when power factor is unit, one of the wattmeter reads zero
d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero –
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40. When a capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5cm2 each, separated by an air gap of 2mm than the displacement sensitivity in pf/cm due to gap change would be –
a.) 11.1
b.) 44.2
c.) 52.3
d.) 66.3

41. The Q of a radio coil –
a.) is independent of frequency
b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency

42. When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –
a.) 0.5
b.) 1.5
c.) 2.5
d.) 1.75

43. The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –
a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)
b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)

44. Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –
a.) -2000C to 5000C
b.) 00C to 5000C
c.) 5000C to 12000C
d.) 12000C to 25000C

45. In the given figure band structure is shown. It is of –
a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)
b.) Silicon (Si)
c.) Copper (Cu)
d.) Germanium (Ge)

46. When anode is positive with respect to cathode in an SCR, the numbers of blocked p-n junction is –
a.) 1
b.) 2
c.) 3
d.) 4

47. The circuit symbol for a GTO is
a. b.
c. d.


48. In the given fig. mark out the type of Cyclo converters
a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction
b.) 1 phase to 1 phase with discontinuous conduction
c.) step up device
d.) 3 phase to 1 phase device

49. In the given fig. A-1, C=5, m H and C=20 m F, C is initially charged to 200 V. After the switch.
S is closed at t = 0 the
maximum value of current and the
time at which it reaches this value are respectively.
a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS
b.) 50 A, 30 mS
c.) 100 A, 62.828 mS
d.) 400 A, 31.414 mS

50. In the given circuit the maximum current in the main SCR M can be-
a.) 200 A
b.) 170.7 A
c.) 141.4 A
d.) 70.7 A

51. The transfer function of an amplifier is given by
The high 3-db frequency of the amplifier will approximately

a.) 5850 KHZ
b.)585 KHZ
c.) 5850 HZ
d.)585HZ

52. In comparison to full wave rectifier with two diodes the four divide bridge rectifier has the dominant advantage of -
a). Higher current carrying
b.)Lower ripple factor
c.) Higher efficiency
d.)Lower peak increase voltage require

53. Power output increase in a class-c amplifier-
a.) If the conduction angle decrease
b).If the conduction angle increase
c.) Are not governed by the conduction angle
d.)None of the above

54. A transistor with hie = 1.5 k and hfe = 75 is used in an emitter follower circuit where R1 and R2 are used for normal biasing . Approximate value of it’s current amplification is-
a.)75
b.)76
c.)75/76
d.)-75

55. Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
a.) It is biased almost to saturation
b.)Its quiescent current is low
c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
d.)It is biased well below cut off

56. The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
a.) Direct coupling
b.)Impedance coupling
c.) R C coupling
d.)Transformer coupling

57. In the circuit shown in the given figure Rf provides
a.) Current series feedback
b.)Current shunt feedback
c.) Voltage series feedback
d.)Voltage shunt feedback

58. Mark the correct relation for the junction transistor

59. Data in the serial form can be converted into parallel form by using –
a.) PISO shift register
b.) SOIP shift register
c.) SIPO shift register
d.) POIS shift register

60. PROMs are used to store-
a.) bulk information
b.) information to be accessed rarely
c.) sequence information
d.) relatively permanent information

61. The horizontal axis in a 3 bit unipolar D/A converter represents-
a.) Output bit combination
b.) analog output voltage
c.) input bit combination
d.) none of the above

62. 'Not allowed' condition in NAND gate SR flip flop is –
a.) s = 0, R = 0
b.) s = 1, R = 1
c.) s = 0, R = 1
d.) s = 1, R = 0

63. Name the fastest logic family-
a) TTL
b. RTL
c.) DCTL
d.) ECL

64. Equation corresponding to De Morgan's theorem in Boolean Algebra is –
a.) (A+B) (A+B) = AA + AB + BA + BB
c.) A + AB = A
d.) None of the above

65. In the given fig find radix of the system –
a.) 2b.) 4
c.) 6
d.) 8

66. Modems are used for data transmission telephone lines to –
a.) increase the transmission capacity
b) improve noice performance
c.) incorporate error control coding
d.) eliminate dc component in the transmitted signal

67. The figure of a control system is shown. The maximum value of gain K for which the system is stable is-
a.)
b.) 3
c.) 4
d.) 5

68. Identify the example of open-loop system-
a.) A windscreen wiper
b.) Aqualung
c.) Respiratory system of an animal
d.) A system for controlling Anti-rocket missiles.

69. Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-
1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)
2. (e-2t +5) (u(t))
3 .V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
4 . V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)
Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include-
a.) 1&3
b.) 1&4
c.) 2&4
d.) 1&4
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70. A system is described by
To test its stability by Lyapunov’s method the following V functions are considered.
Mark the most suitable V-function in this case-
a.) Only V1
b.)Only V2
c.) Both V1 and V2
d.) Neither V1 nor v2
71. Identity the polar plot of a typical type zero system with open loop transfer function

72. The scattering matrix of a magic –tee shown in the given figure is-




73. Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-
1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.
4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes
a.) 1 and 4
b.) 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 3
d.) 2 and 4

74. For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at)
The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is
a.) 150 samples per second
b.) 200 samples per second
c.) 300 samples per second
d.) 350 samples per second

75. In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.
a.) 34 and 106
b.) 52. And 88
c.) 106 and 142
d.) 34 and 142

76. Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a.) Pulse radar
b.) Tracking radar
c.) MTI radar
d.) Mono pulse radar
77. The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –
a.)The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm
b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm
c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing

78. Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-
a.) Compression of the modulating signal
b.) Expansion of the modulating signal
c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.

79. In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-
a.) reflection from the ionosphere
b.) line of sight mode
c) reflection from the ground
d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.

80. Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
a.) increase the gain of the system
b). increase the bandwidth of the system
c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.

81. In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-
a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.

82. Circuit in the given figure represents. –
a.) an astable multivibrator
b.) A monostable multivibrator
c.) Voltage controlled oscillator
d.) Ramp generator

83. . D = r is-
a.) Maxwell's 1st equation
b.) Maxwell's II equation
c.) Maxwell's III equation
d.) Maxwell’s IV equation

84. In a rectangular wave-guide which TM mode exists-
a.) TM00
b.) TM01
c.) Tm10
d.) TM11

85. In directional coupler a portion of power two velliry fram port 1) to port 2) is coupled to.
a). port 4
b). port 3
c. port 2.
d.) port 3 & 4.

86. For high power i.e. 10 w to 50 kw measurement –
a.) Barometer are used
b.) Thermisters are used
c.) Calorimetric technique
d.) Calorimetric watt meter technique used

87. The difference between TWT & klystron is –
a.) In TWT electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in klystron for short time
b.) In klystron electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in TWT for short time
c.) In klystron there is no contact in RF field & electrons while in TWT there is contact
d.) In TWT phase is no contact is RF field & electrons while in klystron there is contact

88. Which one is most suitable for transmission through wave guide-
a.) Hown antennas
b.) Bioconical antennas
c.) helical antenna
d. Discone

89. The skip distance of microwave is given by –
a.)
b.)
c.)
d.)

90. How many general purpose registers 8085mp-
a.) 4
b.) 6
c.) 8
c.) 10

91. 8085 mP has no. of addressing modes-
a.) 2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d.) 5

92. What will be status of z and c y flag after execution of SUB A instruction
a.) z = 0, cy = 0
b.) z = 0, cy = 1
c.) z = 1, cy = 0
d.) z = 1, cy = 1
93. Microprocessor accept interrupt only if.
a.) interrupt flip flop disabled.
b.) when INTA signal is low.
c. interrupt flip flop enabled.
d.) none of above.

94. Microprogramming is a technique
a.) for programming the microprocessor
b.) for writing small programs efficiently
c.) for programming the control steps of computer
d.) for programming o/p / i/p

95. High level programs like C are converted into machine language with the help of
a.) interpreter
b.) compiler
c.) operating
d.) system

96. (10110011)2 = (?)8
a.) 253
b.) 263
c.) 273
d.) 283

97. A Not gate at the output of AND gate converts AND gate into-
a.) NAND
b.) NOR
c.) AND
d.) NOPE.

98. The O/P of a logic gate is the gate must be-
a.) AND
b.) OR
c.) NAND
d.) X-OR

99. 38. A symbol of JK flip flop is-
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100. A demultiplener-
a.) has multiple i/p and single o/p
b.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
c.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
d.) has single i/p and single o/p

101. Which of the following best describes the authour`s attitude toward fairy tales ?
a.) fascination
b.) open approval.
c.) Indulgent tolerance.
d.) Scornful.

102. What type of sentence is this ?
Hurray! We won the match
a.) Exclamatory
b.) assertive
c.) Negative
d.) Affirmative

103. Before which of the following word will you put 'a'
a.) hour
b.) M. A.
c.) Umbrella
d.) Man

104. The noun form of 'fresh' is –
a.) freshly
b.) freshen
c.) fresheners
d.) fresh itself

105. The word 'clang' is an example of –
a.) Simile
b.) inversion
c.) onomatopoeia
d.) irony

106. The Forbes magazine acclaimed Azim Premji as richest India's is the chairman of-
a.) Pentafour software
b) Infosys
c.) IBM
d.) Wipro

107. Bharat Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to-
a.) Lata Mangeshkar and Zakeer Hussain
b.) Zakeer Hussain and Bismillah Khan
c.) Bismillah Khan and Lata Mangeshkar
d.) Lata Mangeshkar and Ustad Amzad Ali Khan

108. Mr. George W-Bush takes over as ------ President of the united states of America succeeding Mr. Bill Clinton-
a.) 42nd
b.) 43rd
c.) 40th
d.) 45th

109. New Chief Minister of Pondicherry is-
a.) T. Venkat Naidu
b.) K. Hari Harh
c.) N. Rengaswany
d.) M. Mudliar

110. No court has the jurisdiction to interfere with the election process once set in motion by the Election commission. This is enshrined in Article-
a.) 311
b.) 329
c.) 356
d.) 365

111. Ostrich is a-
a.) Running bird
b.) Flying bird
c) Swimming bird
d.) Migratory bird

112. The main atmospheric gas responsible for green house is-
a.) Oxygen
b.) Nitrogen
c.) Ozone
d.) Carbon-dioxide

113. Which of the following is not a Kharif Crop-
a.) Rice
b.) groundnut
c.) Sugarcane
d.) gram

114. The function of World Bank is to-
a.) Help in reconstruction and development of world economy
b.) Facilitate poor countries to trade on concessional rates
c.) Promote growth of international trade and equilibrium in balance of payments
d.) Ease trade barriers and establish rule of fair trade

115. Speed of sound is maximum in-
a. )Water
b.) Air
c.) Steel
d.) Vacuum
116. “Long years ago we made a trust with destiny.” Whose words are these-
a.) Subhash Chandra Bose
b.) Jawaharlal Nehru
c.) Lajpat Rai
d.) Bhagat Singh

117. Durand cup is associated with-
a.) Hockey
b.) Tennis
c.) Football
d.) Badminton

118. Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Nobel Prize in literature in the year.
a.) 1908
b.) 1910
c.) 1913
d.) 1914

119. India successfully conducted its first underground nuclear experiment at Pokhran in Rajas than on-
a.) May 18, 1975
b.) May 20, 1974
c) May 17, 1974
d.) May 17, 1974

120. An emergency loan of $ 500 million to help reconstruct infrastructure in earth quake devastated Gujarat approved by-
a.) Asian development Bank
b.) World Bank
c.) Swiss Bank
d.) Reserve Bank of India BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination

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BSNL GE JTO Placement Paper

BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination
Test Paper - VII
1. At a frequency below the resonant frequency parallel circuit is -
a) Inductive
b) Capacitive
c) Resistive
d) None

2. Which of the following are piezo-electric substances-
a) Barium titanate
b) Lead titanate
c) Lead zirconate
d) All the above

3. The resolution of a logic analyser is -
a) The maximum number of input channels
b) The minimum duration of the glitch it can capture
c) The internal clock period
d) The minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

4. In a P-type semiconductor, the conductivity due to holes (=sp) is equal to (e=charge of hole, mp = hole mobility, P = hole concentration)-
a)
b)
c) P.e. mp
d)

5. When a small amount of Cu is added to a Ni conductor, then the –
a) Resistivity of Ni will decrease at all temperatures because Cu is better conductor than Ni
b) Residual resistivity of Ni at low temperatures will increase as Cu atoms acts as defect centers
c) Resistivity of Ni will increase at all temperatures as Cu destroys the periodicity of Ni and acts as defects
d) Resistivity of Ni remains unaltered as Cu atoms give the same numbers of free electrons as Ni atoms

6. A coil would behave as -
a) An inductor at high frequencies
b) A capacitor at very low frequencies
c) A capacitor at very high frequencies
d) A resonator at high frequencies

7. The law that induced emf and current always oppose the cause producing them was discovered by -
a) Maxwell
b) Faraday
c) Lenz
d) Fleming

8. A 'trimmer' capacitor is a variable capacitor used for -
a) 'Tunning up' a radio for best sensitivity
b) Tunning a radio to different stations
c) Changing the original capacitance by several hundred Pico farads
d) Eliminating whistling in a transistor radio

9. In panel wiring, solid wire is preferred to standard wire because it -
a) Can carry more current
b) Can be shaped better
c) Uses less chopper
d) Has better insulation

10. FET's have similar properties to –
a) PNP transistors
b) NPN transistors
c) Thermionic valves
d) Unijunction transistors

11. The semiconductor strain gauge has gauge factor -
a) 2
b) 10
c) 100
d) 1000

12. AE 139 is a-
a) Tunnel diode
b) Germanium power transistor
c) Photoconductive cell
d) Silicon diode

13. When a zener diode is used in a power supply its function is to maintain a constant -
a) Output voltage
b) Input voltage
c) Output current irrespective of the load resistance
d) supply current

14. The value of g for a transistor in saturation is -
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) very near unity
d) 0.25

15. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no –
a) channel
b) gate
c) P-N junction
d) substrate

16. The gating pulse is removed after firing an SCR than the current in the SCR will –
a) Remain the same
b) Immediately fall to zero
c) Rise up
d) Rise a little and then fall to zero

17. In the fabrication of an integrated circuit, the advantages of ion implantation over diffusion doping are that –
a) Point imperfections are not produced
b) Shallow doping is not possible
c) It is a low temperature process
d) Previous steps in fabrication are affected

18. The alternate mode of a dual trace oscilloscope can be used for displaying –
a) Any two waveforms
b) Two waveforms of relatively high frequency
c) Two waveforms of relatively low frequency
d) One low frequency and one high frequency waveform

19. Attenuator is a –
a) pure resistance network producing a constant attenuation
b) pure resistance network producing a variable attenuation at variable frequencies
c) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at all frequencies
d) pure resistance producing a constant attenuation at low frequencies

20. The equivalent circuit of the following circuit is –
21. For the lattice type attenuator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance R is –

22. Thevenin's equivalent circuit of the network shown in the given figure, between terminals T1 and T2 is –

23. One of the following combinations of open circuit voltage and Thevenins equivalent resistance which represents the Thevenins equivalent of the circuit shown in the given fig. is –
a) 1V, 10W
b) 1V, 1kW
c) 1mV, 1kW
d) 1mV, 10W

24. In the following circuit, the effective resistance faced by the voltage source is –
a) 1W
b) 2W
c) 3W
d) 3.3W

25. The equivalent circuit of a resistor is shown in the given fig. The resistor will be non-inductive if –

26. One of the following which is a cut set of the graph shown in fig. is –
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3, 4 and 6
c) 1, 4, 5 and 6
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5

27. For which value of R the following circuit will deliver maximum to the terminals a and b is –

28. In a coaxial cable, braided copper is used as a -
a) Conductor
b) Shield
c) Dielectric
d) Jacket

29. When the transmission loss for a 3 GHz microwave system over a certain distance is 130 dB and if the frequency is now doubled then the transmission loss will be –
a) 136 dB
b) 133 dB
c) 127 dB
d) 139 dB
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30. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed -
a) In the +x direction
b) In the –x direction
c) In the +y direction
d) In the –y direction

31. With reference to the given figure, the signal picked up by the receiving antenna can be increased by increasing-
a) he only
b) hr only
c) both he and hr
d) neither he nor hr

32. Which of the following antennas are frequency independent ?
1. Folded dipole
2. Half wave dipole
3. Parabolic reflector
4. Helical antenna
a) 2 and 4
b) 3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) 1,2 and 3

33. The reading of digital multimeter are –
a) very difficult
b) confusing
c) convenient
d) none

34. One of the following which does not have the same units as the others –
35. Shaft encoder is used for the measurement of –
a) angular position
b) linear position
c) linear velocity
d) linear acceleration.

36. The materials used in switches, brushes and relays for electrical contact must possess –
a) high thermal conductivity and high melting point.
b) low thermal conductivity and low melting point.
c) high thermal conductivity and low melting point.
d) low thermal conductivity and high melting point.

37. Capacitive transducer is superior to inductive type for the measurement of displacement because of –
a) absence of non-linearity
b) high frequency response
c) small size
d) high accuracy

38. When a RLC series circuit has R=1ohm, L=1H and C = 1F then the damping ratio on the circuit will be-
a) more than unity
b) unity
c) 0.5
d) zero

39. The sensitivity of an electromagnetic digital flow meter can be increased by increasing –
a) the circumferential width of rotor teeth
b) the radial depth of rotor teeth
c) the thickness of rotor teeth
d) the number of teeth

40. A moving iron instrument –
a) is an unpolarised meter
b) has not a fixed coil
c) both a and b
d) none

41. A linear displacement transducer of the digital type generally uses –
a) straight binary code
b) BCD
c) Gray code
d) hexadecimal code

42. The output open circuit voltage divided by the input current for a two port reciprocal network is equal to-
a) B
b) Z12
c) 1/y12
d) h12

43. The ac bridge shown in the given figure if balanced is Z1 = 100 Ð300 Z2 = 150Ð00, Z3 = 250 Ð 400 and Z4 is equal to –
a) 375Ð700
b) 375Ð-700
c) 150Ð00
d) 150 Ð200

44. The given figure represents the variation of electric field E –
a) Due to a spherical volume charge Q = Q1 + Q2
b) Due to two concentric shells of charge Q1 and Q2 uniformly distributed over spheres of radii R1 and R2
c) Due to two point charges Q1 and Q2 located at any two points 'r'
d) In a single spherical shell of charges Q uniformly distributed Q = Q1 + Q2

45. In a SCR anode current flows over a narrow regain near the gate during-
a) delay time tr
b) rise time tr and spread time to
c) td and t0
d) td and tr

46. For a 3-phase six-pulse diode rectifier, the average output voltage in terms of maximum value of line voltage Vm is

47. In an inverter with fundamental ouctput frequency of 50 Hz, if third harmonic is eliminated, then frequencies of other components in the output voltage wave in Hz would be-
a) 250, 350, 450, high frequencies
b) 50, 250, 350, 450
c) 50, 250, 350, 550
d) 50, 100, 200, 250.

48. Number of SCRs in a 3 phase full converter working during overlap is-
a) 1 from positive group 1 from negative group
b) 2 from positive group 1 from negative group
c) 1 from positive group 2 from negative group
d) 2 from positive group 2 from negative group

49. For a 3 phase bridge inverter in 1800 conduction mode. In the given fig the sequence of SCR conduction in the first two steps beginning with the initiation of thyristor is-
a) 6, 1, 2, and 2, 3, 1
b) 2,3,1 and 3,4,5
c) 3,4,5 and 5,6,1
d) 5,6,1 and 6,1,2

50. For the lattice type atten uator shown in the given figure, the characteristic impedance Rv is-

51. The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-
a) A resonant circuit is used as load)
b)The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.
c) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive.
d)None of the above.

52. The low impedance of a dynamic loud speaker is a result of -
a) a large field magnet
b) the few turns of the voice coil
c) a large paper cone with big loud speakers
d) None of the above

53 The value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 na) The value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180 C would be-
a) 8mA
b) 160 nA
c) 1 mA
d) 7.84 mA

54. A certain percentage of negative feedback does not yield a fixed reduction in gain because it depends on-
a) Transistor configuration
b) Ambient temperature
c) Initial value of gain
d) Leakage current of the transistor

55. Crossover distortion occurs in --- amplifiers-
a) Push pull
b) Class A
c) Class B
d) Class AB

56. The power gain of an amplifier is 80 db) The half power frequency f1 and f2 are the frequency where gain has fallen to ---dB-
a) 40
b) 77
c) 0
d) 80/Ö2

57. In the given fig the overall voltage gain in the amplifier is -
a) Zero
b) 1
c) 1000
d) 100000

58. A two stage amplifier is required to have an upper cut off frequency of 2MHz and a lower cut off frequency 30Hz. The upper and lower cut off frequencies of individual stage are approximately-
a) 4MHz, 60Hz
b) 3MHz, 20Hz
c) 3MHz, 60Hz
d) 4MHz, 20Hz

59. Number of possible states in a circuit with n- FLIPFLOPS is-
a) Nn
b) 3n
c) 10n
d) 2n

60. In a digital voltmeter the largest number that can be read is –
a) 0999
b) 1999
c) 2999
d) 9999

61. The complement of the Boolean expression is-

62. The binary division 110002 ¸ 1002 gives –
a) 110
b) 1100
c) 11
d) 101

63. Time required by TTL circuit to switch from 0 to 1 or 1 to 0 is about –
a) 10 ms
b) 10 ns
c) 100 ms
d) 50 ns

64. Identify the wrong statement ?
a) 111002 – 100012 = 001012
b) 15E16 = 35010
c) 8110 = 1010012
d) 37.48 = 111 111.100

65. Type of radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a) Monopulse radar
b) MTl radar
c) Tracking radar
d) pulse radar

66. Asynchronous sequential circuits are seldom designed to operate in the pulse mode because –
a) the amplitude of input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
b) the duralion of the input pulses in a pulse mode is very critical
c) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit is cheaper than pulse mode asynchronous circuit
d) fundamental mode asynchronous circuit has a higher speed of operation than the pulse mode asynchronous circuit.

67. Identity the transferred electron device-
a) BARITT diode
b) IMPATT diode
c) Gunn diode
d) Step recovery diode

68. In a closed loop system the loop transfer function is given by
The angle of departure of the root locus at S = -1+ J is-
a) Zero
b) 900
c) -900
d) -1800

69. The transfer function of a plant is
For a step input it is required that the response settles to within 2% of its final value. The plant setting time is –
a) 20 sec
b) 40 sec
c) 35 sec
d) 45 sec
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70. The transfer function and states in a linear feedback system shown in given fig. are respectively –


a) strictly stable and not stable
b) strictly stable and stable
c) not strictly stable and stable
d) not stable and not stable.

71. What is the steady state-error corresponding to a unit step input if the magnitude plot for a transfer function is shown in figure


72. Mark the correct effect in respect of addition of a pole to the system loop transfer function?
1. The root locus is pulled to the right.
2. The system response becomes slower.
3. The steady state error increases.
of these statements-
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct
d) 1 and 3 are correct

73. In a feedback control system the polar plot of the open-loop transfer function intersects the real axis at - 2. The gain margin of the system is -
a) –5 dB
b) 0 dB
c) 6 dB
d) 40 dB

74. The unity feedback system for K is
the imaginary axis is-
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 48

75. The constant M loci plot is symmetrical width respect to-
a) real axis and imaginary axis
b) M =1 straight line and the real axis
c) M =1 straight line and the imaginary axis
d) M = 1 straight line and the imaginary axis

76. Identify the wrong statement-
a) Attenuation of satellite signals gain and varies almost inversely with the angle of elevation.
b) At present4/6 GHz Geostationary satellites are being parked in Geosynchronous orbits at least 100 apart.
c) The distance between satellite and earth station varies slightly with angle of elevation.
d) The angle of elevation depends on latitude of the earth station and the difference in longitude between earth station and the satellite.

77 The Voltage Vo of the given circuit is-
a) 5V
b) 3.1 V
c) 2.5 V
d) Zero

78. An antenna has 40 antenna resistance and 60W radiation resistances. The efficiency of the antenna is -
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%

79. The blind speed of an MTl radar can be avoided by changing the-
a) Carrier frequency
b) Pulse repetition frequency
c) Antenna rotation rate
d) Transmitted power

80. Interlacing used in television is for-
a) produce the illusion of motion.
b) ensures that all the lines on the screen are scanned, not merely the alternate ones.
c) simplify the vertical sync pulse train
d) avoid flicker

81. The best system for accurate tracking if the target cross section is changing is-
a) lobe switching
b) sequential lobing
c) conical scanning
d) monopulse

82. In a single stage differential amplifier, the output effect voltage is basically dependent on the mismatch of-
a) VBE, IB and b
b) VBE and IB
c) IB and b
d) VBE and b

83. Antenna elevation angle at the ground station for satellite communication is always kept above 50 to-
a) Minimise the sky noise temperature
b) Reduce the effect of oxygen and water vapor absorption on the antenna noise temperature
c) Minimise the slant range
d) Increase the visibility of the satellite

84. In Hybrid wave-
a) Both electric and magnetic fields are purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
b) Only electric field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
c) Only magnetic field is purely transverse to direction of propagation of wave
d) Neither electric nor magnetic fields are transverse to direction of propagation of the wave

85. Balometer technique is used to measure –
a) Frequency
b) Low power
c) Attenuation
d) Phase shift

86. In fast switching circuits we use –
a) Klystron tube
b) Tunnel diode
c) Magnetron tube
d) PIN diode

87. PIN diode is used as –
a) Low noise mixer
b) Microwave detector
c) Balance mixer
d) Phase shifter

88. A periodic fluctuation of current passing through n type GaAS specimen when applied voltage exceeds critical value-
a) Gauss’s law
b) Faraday’s law
c) GUNN effect
d) Doppler effect

89. LOS distance can be increased by –
a) Increasing height of transmitting antenna
b) Increasing height of receiving antenna
c) Increasing height of bath
d) LOS distance can not be increased

90. Which fading produces serious distortion of modulated signal-
a) Selective
b) Polorisation
c) Interference
d) Slow fading

91. 8085 mP is a processor of -
a) 8 bit
b) 10 bit
c) 32 bit
d) None

92. The Bit position of AC flog in flog register is-
a) D2
b) D4
c) D6
d) D7

93. In which arithmatic operation CY flog do not affect even if result is larger than 8 bit-
a) INR B
b) ADD A, B
c) SUB A, B
d) None

94. A stock means-
a) an 8 bit register in microprocessor
b) a 16 bit memory address in memory
c) a 16 bit register in microprocessor.
d) a set of memory location in memory reserved for storing information temporarily.

95. RIM instruction-
a) checks pending interupts
b) sets the interupt mask
c) resets the RST interupt
d) none of above

96. A signal generated by microprocessor to provide timing of various operation is transmited through-
a) address bus.
b) data bus
c) control bus
d) in buit signal no need to transmit

97. On execution of RAL-
a) Each bit is shifted right to the adjacent position bit Do becomes Dy
b) Each bit is shifted right to adjacent position bit Do becomes the carry bit and carry bit is shifted into DT
c) Each bit is shifted to adjacent left position. Bit DT becomes Do
d) Each bit is shifted to the adjacent left postion. Bit DT becomes the carry bit and the carry bit is shifted into Do

98. A frequency divider can be designed with help of-
a) Monostable
b) Bistable
c) Astable
d) Quasistable

99. The not allowed condition for NAND gate SR FF is-
a) S = 0 R = 0
b) S = 0 R = 1
c) S = 1 R = 0
d) S = 1 R = 1
BSNL Recruitment Question Paper for GE JTO free. BSNL Placement Examination Paper previous years 2006 2007 2008 2009 sample paper. solutions / answer keys coming soon!
100. In IC resistors are formed from p-type semiconductor are –
a) thin film
b) thick film
c) hybrid
d) monolithic

101. Give the tense of the following sentence-
He walked to the garden.
a) Present
b) Past
c) Future
d) None

102. You may go there if you want to. Here, the modal auxiliary 'may' indicates-
a) obligation
b) politeness
c) possibility
d) request

103. What type of a sentence is this?
His findings were imroved and built apon.
a) Simple
b) Comound
c) Complex
d) None of the above

104. The manager is usually strict but in Madhav's case he decided to be-
a) direct
b) fair
c) excused
d) lenient

105. Find the word which is wrongly spelt-
a) possession
b) ocassion
c) profession
d) procession

106. “Dow Jones” is -
a) Name of the national museum in London
b) Bridge over River Thames
c) New York Stock Index
d) New Olympic champion in cycling

107. The term “Ashes” is associated with-
a) Hockey
b) Cricket
c) soccer
d) None of these

108. “Kathakali” dance is connected with-
a) Kerala
b) Rajasthan
c) Uttar Predesh
d) Tamil nadu

109. Among the following Miss India Universe 2001 is-
a) Ms Sara corner
b) Ms Maheshwari Thiagarajan
c) Ms Celina Jetley
d) None of the these

110. Maharashtra Bhusan Award for the year 2000 – 2001 by the state government goes to -
a) Sanjay Manjrekar
b) Vinod Kambli
c) Sachin Tendulkar
d) Praveen Sharma

111. Who was Sworn in as the chief Justice of India-
a) Mr. S. Krishnaswamy
b) Mr.A.K. Mehra
c) Mr. J.K. Naidu
d) Mr. S.P. Bharucha

112. Which one of the following tennis competitions is not included in GRAND SLAM?
a) Wimbeldon
b) U.S open
c) French open
d) Australian open

113. The first Korean to win the Japan open badminton tournament is -
a) Lee Hyun – II
b) Marleen Renders
c) Shang Pee
d) Emma Yan

114. India launched first satellite by the name-
a) Bhaskara
b) Aryabhatt
c) INSAT
d) APPLE

115. Which state in India is called the “garden of spices”?
a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Tamil Nadu

116. The new CEO and the president of the Infosys Technology is –
a) N. R. Narayan Murth
b) Nandan Nilekani
c) SD Shibulal
d) M. Subbarao

117. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabh-
a) 6 members
b) 9 members
c) 12 members
d) 15 members

118. King of Nepal is-
a) Prince Gyanendra
b) Prince Dipendra
c) Prince Birendra
d) Prince Devendra

119. The famous paper which gandhigi edited to propagate his ideas-
a) Khadi
b) Swadeshi
c) Harijan
d) Satyagraha

120. The length of the pitch in the cricket is-
a) 22 meters
b) 25 yards
c) 50 feet
d) 22 yards
BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination

BSNL GE JTO Recruitment Placement Question Paper

BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination
Test Paper - VI
1. At a frequency below the resonant frequency series circuit is-
a.) Inductive
b.) Capacitive
c. )Resistive
d.)None
2. The electrical conductivity of metals is typically of the order of (Ohm –1 m-1) -
a.) 107
b. )105
c. )10-4
d. )10-6
3. The output of a piezoelectric crystal has-
a. )Low amplitude and low impedance
b. )High amplitude and high impedance
c. )Low amplitude and high impedance
d.)High amplitude and low impedance
4. The time constant associated with the capacitor charging in the circuit shown in the given figure is –
a. )6ms
b. )10ms
c. )15ms
d.) 25ms
5. The Q factor of an inductor would be higher if it is made of –
a.) Thinner wire
b.) Longer wire
c.) Shorter wire
d.) Thicker wire
6. A cavity resonator can be represented by –
a.) An LC circuit
b.) An LCR circuit
c.) A lossy inductor
d.) A lossy capacitor
7. Air gap in the iron core of an inductor prevents –
a.) Core saturation
b). Hysterisis loss
c.) Flux leakage
d.) Transformer action
8. Between the plates of an air capacitor if a glass slab is slipped without moving the plate then -
a.) Its capacitance is decreased
b.) Its capacitance is increased
c.) Its capacitance is hardly affected
d. )Capacitor is discharged
9. For current to flow, a circuit must be –
a.) Isolated
b). Insulated
c.) Complete
d.) Protected
10. Human ear can detect sound intensities of the order of –
a.) 10-20 w/m2
b). 10-13 w/m2
c.) 10-6 w/m2
d.) 10-3 w/m2
11. A FET operates on –
a). Majority carriers only
b). Minority carriers only
c). Positively charged ions only
d.) None
12. An SCR can conduct for a full half cycle or any part of it –
a. )and continue conduction for other half cycle
b.) but blocks the conduction for other half cycle
c.) nothing can be said
d.) none
13. In CRT aquadag carries -
a. )aqueous solution of graphite
b. )sweep voltage
c. )secondary emission electrons
d.) none of the above

14. From the following circuit, in order to obtain a 12-v stabilized supply the input to the terminals A and B
should be -
a.)less than 12v with terminal A positive with respect to terminal B
b. )greater than 12v with B positive with respect to A
c. )less than 12v with A negative with respect to B
d. )greater than 12v with A positive with respect to B
15. When the value of ICBO in a silicon transistor of b = 49 is 20 Na then the value of ICEO for a temperature rise of 180c would be –
a. )8mA
b. )160 hA
c. )1mA
d. )7.84mA
16. MOSFET can operate in –
a. )Depletion mode
b. )Enhancement mode
c. )Depletion-only mode
d. )Both a & b
17. For a circuit design the very factor of an SCR, which is to be taken into account is –
a.)
d.) None

18. The functions of an oxide layer in an IC device is to –
a.) mask against diffusion or ion implant
b.) insulate the surface electrically
c.) produce a chemically stable protective layer
d.) all the above
19. One of the following bipolar transistors which has the highest current gain bandwidth product for similar geometry is –
a.) NPN germanium transistor
b.) NPN silicon transistor
c.) PNP germanium transistor
d. )PNP silicon transistor.
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20. With the increasing temperature, the electrical conductivity would –
a.) Increase in metals as well as in intrinsic semiconductors.
b.) Increase in metals but decrease in intrinsic semiconductors.
c. )Decrease in metals but increase in intrinsic semiconductors.
d. )Decrease in metals as well as in intrinsic semiconductors.
21. For the following circuit, the current X is 3A then the power delivered by the dependent current source D is –
a.) 50 watts
b) 50 watts
c. )1500 watts
d. )15000 watts
22. The current in resistor R shown in the fig. will be –
a.) 0.2A
b.) 0.4A
c.) 0.6A
d.) 0.8A

23. In the network shown in the given fig. the capacitor C1 is initially charged to a voltage V0 before the switch S in the circuit is closed. In the steady state-
a.)C1 and C2 are charged to equal voltages
b.) C1 and C2 are charged with equal coulombs
c. )C1 and C2 are discharged fully
d. ) C2 alone is charged to voltage V0
24. The equivalent circuit of a wire-wound resistor can be represented as –

25. For the fig. shown the fundamental cutset for the branch 12 is –
a. )2, 1, 5
b. )2, 6, 7, 8
c. )2, 1, 3, 4,5
d. )2, 3, 4

26. Ideally, attenuator pads should not change –
a. )voltage level
b.) impedance level
c.) power level
d.) voltage, power or impedance level
27. When the two networks are cascaded through an ideal Buffer and if tr1 and tr2 are the rise times of the two networks, then the overall delay of the two networks together will be –

28. For the network shown in the following fig. one of the following theorems which can be conveniently used to calculate the power consumed by the 10W resistor is –
a. )Thevenin's theorem
b.) Maximum power transfer theorem
c.) Millman's theorem
d.) Superposition theorem
29 The nodal analysis is primarily based on the application of –
a. )KVL
b.) KCL
c.) Ohm's law
d.) Both b and c
30. When the driving point impedance of a network at a frequency of 1Hz is then the impedance can be realised as –
31. For a lossless line-
1. Series resistance is zero 2. Shunt conductance is zero
3. Shunt conductance is infinite 4. Series resistance is infinite
a. ) 1 & 2
b. )2 & 3
c. ) 2 & 4
d.)3 & 4
32. When a square wave is fed to an RC circuit then-
a.) Voltage across R is square and across C is not square
b) Voltage across C is not square and across R is not square
c. ) Voltage across both R and C are square
d. )Voltage across both R and C are not square
33. When an A.M. broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 kw power when the modulation percentage is 60 then the power of the carrier is-
a. ) 5.00 kw
b.) 7.69 kw
c.) 8.47 kw
d.) 9.17 kw
34. The main components of atmosphere responsible for absorption of em waves are -
a. ) Nitrogen and Oxygen
b. )Nitrogen and hydrogen
c.) Oxygen and water vapour
d. )Nitrogen and water vapour
35. The effective height of a linear antenna of length ‘l’ is say ‘x’ when the current distribution along it’s length is uniform and say, it is ‘y’ when the current distribution is sinusoidal then x/y is equal to -
a.) 2
b.) 1
c. ) 4/ p
d.) p/4
36. In a hollow rectangular waveguide, the phase velocity -
a.) Increases with increasing frequency
b.)Decreases with increasing frequency
c. )Is independent of frequency
d.)Will vary with frequency depending upon the frequency range

37. For TM waves in a parallel plate waveguide, the minimum attenuation arising from imperfect conductors would occur at a frequency of (fc is the cut–off frequency )-
a.) 3fc
*

38. When a transmission line having 50 impedance is terminated in a load of ( 40 + j30) W then the VSWR is –
a.)j 0.033
b.)0.8 + j 0.6
c.) 1
d.)2
39. The ionosphere plays a significant role in radio wave propogation at-
a.)High frequencies
b.)Ultra-high frequencies
c. Microwave frequencies
d.)Optical frequencies
40. When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it’s power is increased by-
a. )100%
b. )150 %
c. )50%
d.) 0%
41. Reluctances in series are –
a. )Subtractive
b.) Additive
c.) Multiplicative
d.) None.
42. When the meters X and Y requires 40 mA and 50 mA respectively for full scale deflection then –
a. )X is more sensitive
b.) Y is more sensitive
c. )both are equally sensitive
d.) not possible to determine from the given data.
43. In the context of ac bridge measurement the term "Wagner Ground" means –
a.) a special RC connection that eliminates stray magnetic effects.
b.) any unwanted and unintended ground connection.
c.) a large metal plate buried in the ground and connected to one corner of the bridge.
d.) a special RC connection that eliminates stray capacitance effects.
44. The gating and counting circuits of a digital counter –
a. )cannot handle MHz signals
b.) cannot handle GHz signals
c. )can handle GHz signals
d.) none.
45. De- sauty bridge is more widely used because of –
a. )simplicity
b. )perfect balance for imperfect capacitors
c. )perfect balance for air capacitors
d.) maximum sensitivity.
46. A schottky diode clamp is used along with a switching BJT for –
a. )reducing the power dissipation.
b. )reducing the switching time
c. )increasing the value of b
d.) reducing the base current.
47. The phenomenon of creeping occurs in –
a. )Energy meters
b.) Ammeters
c. )Wattmeter
d. )Voltmeters
48. A permanent magnet moving coil measures the –
a. )true rms value
b.) dc value
c.) peak value
d. )rms plus dc value
49. The D`Arsonval meter movement can be converted into an audio frequency ac ammeter by adding to it a-
a. )thermocouple
b.) rectifier
c.) chopper
d. )transducer
50. Which one of the following detectors is generally used in ac bridges for audio frequency range ?
a. )Ac voltmeter
b. )CRO
c. )Headphones
d.) Vibration galvanometer.
51. In single phase circuit capacitor used for power factor correction decreases –
a.) The power factor
b.) The line current
c.) Both a and b
d.) The line current and increases power factor
52. In the given figure X the balanced bridge should be
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self-inductance having resistance
b. )A capacitance
c. )A non-Inductive resistance
d. )An inductance and a capacitance in parallel
53. SiO2 layer in an integrated circuit provides –
a. )Electrical connection to external circuit
b.) Physical strength
c. )Isolation
d. )Conducting path
54. For an SCR with turn on time of 5 microsecond, an ideal trigger pulse should have-
a. )short rise time with pulse width = 3 m sec
b. )vlong rise time with pulse width = 6 m sec
c. )short rise time with pulse width = 6 m sec
d.)long rise time with pulse width = 3 m sec
55. In a 3-phase half wave diode rectifier, the ratio of average output voltage to per phase maximum a c voltage is-
a) 0.955
b. )0.827
c.) 1.654
d. )1.169
56. In multiple pulse modulation used in PWN inverters, the amplitude and frequency for triangular carrier and square reference signals are respectively 4V, 6 KH2 and 1V, 1KH2. The number of pulses per half cycle and pulse width is respectively-.
a. )6, 900
b. )3, 450
c. )4, 600
d.) 3, 400
57. A four quadrant operation requires-
a. )two full converters in series.
b.) two full converters connected back to back.
c.) two full converters connected in parallel.
d.) two semi converters connected back to back
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58. In voltage source inverters-
a. )load voltage waveform o depends on load impedance z, where as load current waveform io does not depend on z,
b. )Both o and io depend on z,
c.) o does not depend on z where as depends on z
d. )both o and do not depend on z
59. For an RC driving – point impedance function, the poles and zeros-
a. )should alternate on real axis
b.) should alternate only on the negative real axis
c.) should alternate on the imaginary axis
d.) can lie anywhere on the left half place.
60. The functions of connecting a resistor in series with gate - cathode circuit and a zener diode across gate cathode circuit are, respectively to protect the gate circuit from-
a.) over voltages, over currents.
b. )over currents over voltages.
c. )over currents, noise signals
d. )noise signals, over voltages.
61. The plate efficiency of a class C amplifier is high because-
a.)A resonant circuit is used as load
b.) The plate current flows when the instantaneous plate voltage is low.
c. ) The plate current flows only when grid is driven positive
d. )None of the above
62. The circuit diagram shown in the figure consist of transistor is -
a. ) Parallel connection
b.) Cascode connection
c. ) Darlington connection
d. )Cascade connection
63. Increase of current in one transistor in a direct coupled circuit -
a. ) Causes an increase in current in other transistors of the circuit
b. )Causes a decrease in current in other transistor
c. )Does not affect the currents of other transistors connected in the circuit
d. )May either increase or decrease currents of other transistors connected in the circuit.
64. In a PNP transistor the charge carriers in the base region which play an important role in the operation of the transistor are-
a. ) The majority carriers
b.) The minority carriers
c. ) Nothing can be said
d. )None of the above
65. Voltage gain in a CC amplifier is-
a. )Cannot exceed unity
b. )Is always constant
c. ) Is dependent on input signal
d. )Depends on output impedance
66. Random-access-memory means –
a. )memory in a random fashion
b. )memory in a zigzag fashion
c. )memory in a circular fashion
d. )memory in a square fashion
67. BCD code is –
a. )an alphanumeric code
b. )a binary code
c .) the same thing as binary numbers
d. )non-weighed
68. The transfer function of a system is . The phase swift at w = 0 and w = a will be -
a.) 900 and –00
b. )-900 and 900
c. )-1800 and 1800
d. )None of the above
69. Number of resolutions in a 8 bit D/A converter is –
a. )8 bit
b.) 4 bit
c. )6 bit
d.) 10 bit
70. A bistable multivibrator is used as a –
a.) Free running multivibrator
b.) Frequency multiplier
c.) Frequency divider
d. )Wave shaper
71. The transfer function of a system is The phase shift at w = o and w = will be –
a. )900 and -00
b. )–900 and 900
c. )–1800 and 1800
d. )none of the above.
72. A forward path transfer function of a unity feedback control system is equal to The unit step response of this system starting from rest will have its maximum value at a time equal to –
a. )0 sec
b. )0.56 sec
c. )5.6 sec
d.) infinity.

73. To obtain the output position in a position control system, which one of the following transducers is used-
a.) Strain Gauge
b.) Load cell
c. )Synchro
d.) Thermistor

74. The maximum resonance peak for the second order transfer function T(S) = will be –
a. )4
b. )4/3
c. )2

75. Considering control system in the given fig .
For slight variation in G, the ratio of open loop sensitivity to closed pool
sensitivity will be given by-
a.) 1: (1+GH)
b.) 1 : (1+GH)-1
c. )1 : (1-GH)
d. )1 : (1-GH)-1
76 The diversity system in Troposcatter links is made use of to-
a. )Increase the bandwidth
b.) Prevent noise effects
c.) Increase the directivity of the antenna.
d.) Detect signal in the presence of fading.
77. )Mark out wrong statement regarding compandor-
a.) It compresses the higher amplitude parts of a signal before modulation and expands them back to normal again after demodulation.
b.) It gives preferential treatment to the weaker parts of the signal
c.) For weaker signals, it gives a poor ratio of signal strength to quantizing error.
d. )Weaker signals, transverse more quantum steps than they would do otherwise and so quantizing error is reduced –
78. Among other equipment a sub marine cable repeater contains –
a.) A dc power supply and regulator
b. )Filters for the two directions of transmission
c.) Multiplexing and demultiplexing equipment
d.) Pilot inject and pilot extract equipment
79. In a communication system noice is most likely to affect the signal-
a.) At the transmitter
b.) In the channel
c.) In the information source
d.) At the destination
80. The given circuit is a –
a.) Monostable multivibrator
b.) Frequency division circuit
c.) Miller sweeps circuit
d.) Bootstrap sweep circuit
81. In a plane transverse electromagnetic wave-
a.) Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is O.
b.)Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is 900
c.) Angle between electric and magnetic vectors is 1800
d.) None of above.
82. Directional coupler is a function of-
a.) Two port wave-guide
b.) Four port wove guide
c. )Single port wave-guide
d.) Size port wave-guide.
83. Isolators are used to couple generator and load because –
a.) It increases power of signal
b.) To match any load with generator
c. )To get phase shifted o/p
d.) To differentiate load & generator
84. In travelling wave tube for getting amplified output -
a. )Electron beam travels and RF field remains stationary
b.) Both electron beam and RF field travels in same direction
c. )Both electron beam and RF field remains stationary
d.) RF field travels and electron beam remains stationary

85. Crystal diode works on principle of –
a. )Negative resistance
b. )Positive resistance
c. )Square low
d.) Linear impedance
86. In gunn effect oscillator which mode having lowest operating frequency –
a. )Domain mode
b. )Delayed domain mode
c. )Quenched domain mode
d. )LSA mode
87. In Reflex klystron maximum energy transferred to gap by electrons-
a. )eR
b. )ee
c. )el
d. )eR , ee, el
88. The radio waves get absorbed by atmosphere depends –
a.) Their distance from transmitter is long
b.) Wave power is weak
c. )Improper polarization of wave
d.) Frequency of waves
89. 8085 mP has no of sets of communication lines-
a. )2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d. ) None
90. No. of o/p ports in peripheral mopped I/p are up to-
a.)32
b.) 64
c. ) 128
d.) 256
91. Is two byte instruction-
a.) MOV A, B
b.) ANA B
c.) MV I B, 92 H
d.) LHLD 2050 H
92. Banch instructions-
a. ) only uses flogs setting to make decision.
b. )only sets flogs according to results.
c. ) uses flogs settings as well as sets flogs setting
d. )nighteruse flog settings not set flogs.
93. What will be the time delay achieved from following loop-
Loop DCX B 6
MOV A, C, 4
ORA B 4
JNZ Loop 10
system clock freg. = 2 MHz.
a. ) 10 m s
b.)12 m s
c.) 14 m s
d. 16 m s
94. After execution of pop statement-
a. ) Stack pointer decremented by 2
b.) Stack pointer incremented by 2
c.) Stack pointer decremented by 1
d. )Stack pointer incremented by 1
95. Labels are used as an alternative for-
a.) Data
b.) Register name
c.) Memory address
d) Stack pointer
96. Microprogramming is a technique-
a) For programming the microprocessor
b.) For writing small programs efficiently
c. )For programming the control steps of computer
d.) For programming o/p / i/p
97. 00110010 – 01000101 =?
a.) 00010011
b. )11101101
c. )11100011
d. )11100100
98. When an array is possed as an argument to a function what exactly gets possed-
a.) Address of the array
b. )Values of elements of array
c.) Number of elements of array
d. )Address of the first element of the array
99. A write cycle time means-
a.) Minimum length of write pulse
b.) Minimum amount of time for which data must be valid before write pulse end
c.) Minimum time required between successive write operation
d.) Minimum time for which data must be valid after write pulse ends
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100. If three i/p of a gate are 1, 0, 1 then output is O the gate must be-
a.) NOT
b.) AND
c.) OR
d. )NAND.
101. Inverting amplifier configuration using operational amplifier is –

102. Which logic family is most faster-
a.) ECL
b.) DCTL
c.) RTL
d) TTL
103. For getting positive o/p from two i/p OR gate for positive logic-
a.) both i/p must be positive
b.) both i/p must be negative
c.) any one of i/p must be positive
d.) undefined condition
104. Supercilious is –
a. )Harighty
b.) High brow
c.) Angry
d.) Inane.
105. Give the synonym of 'moribund'-
a.) Undertaking
b.) Burial
c.) Leather bound
d.) Dying
106. The convention was to end on May 13 with a month long break in between. What do the two prepositions indicate?
a.) Duration
b.) Time
c) Direction
d.) Position
107. According to the writer what influences our dreams-
a. )inner censorships
b.) the stories
c. )the tales
d) none.
108. Vaunted is –
a.) Unvanquished
b.) Fell.
c.)Belittled
d.) Exacting.
109. The sun rays falls vertically on -
a.) Tropics
b.) Doldrums
c.) Poles
d.) Equator
110. Trimurti is associated with -
a.) Ellora
b.) Ajanta
c.) Khajuraho
d.) Elephant caves
111. In which year did the congress adopt “Poorna Swaraj” or complete independence as its goal?
a.) 1930
b.) 1929
c.) 1928
d.) 1942
112. Director of CBI-
a.) D.C Sharma
b.) A. M Shrivastava
c.) P.C Sharma
d.) P.C Dole
113. Rajiv Gandhi khel Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to -
a.) P. gopichand
b.) P. T Usha
c.) Sachin Tendulkar
d.) Gurpreet Singh
114. During which time is vist to Mecca treated as Haj?
a.) Id-Ul-Fitr
b) Id-ul-Zuha
c. )Milad-un-Nabi
d.) Any time
115. Of the 109 known metals, how many occur in nature and how many are produced synthetically in particle accelerators!
a.) 79 and 10
b.) 80 and 29
c. )95 and 14
d.) None can be produced synthetically
116. Earth’s average speed per second around the sun is -
a.) 30 km
b. ) 32 km
c.) 34 km
d.) 35 km
117. Governor of Reserve Bank of India is -
a.) Bimal Jalan
b.) C. Ranga Rajan
c. )Rana Malhotra
d. )S. Venkata Ramanan
118. The first pope to enter a mosque in Damascus syria is -
a )Pope John Paul II
b.) Pope John Paul I
c.) Pope John Paul III
d. )Pope John Paul V
119. Uranium is found in the state of -
a.) Orissa
b.) A. P
c.) Karnataka
d. )Bihar
120. Nuclear Power plant in Pakistan is located at-
a. )Karachi
b.) Peshawar
c. )Ellipse
d.) Paraboloid

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BSNL JTO Recrutiment Examination Question Paper

BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination
Test Paper - V
1. Reactive current through the inductive load produces-
a) Magnetic field
b) Electric field
c) Super magnetic field
d) None

2. When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 800 K then the resistance of -
a) each of them increases
b) each of them decreases
c) copper increases and germanium decreases
d) copper decreases and germanium increases

3. A capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5 cm2 each separated by an air gap of 2mm. Displacement sensitivity in pF /cm due to gap change would be -
a) 11.1
b) 44.2
c) 52.3
d) 66.3

4. The critical angle in degrees, for an electromagnetic wave passing from Quartz (m = m0, Î=4Îo) into air is-
a) 15
b)30
c)45
d)90

5. When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be –
a) s = 0; s = -6
b) s = -1; s = -3
c) s = 0; s = -1
d) s = -3; s = -4

6. A capacitor used for power factor correction in single- phase circuit decreases –
a) the power factor
b) the line current
c) Both the line current and the power factor
d) the line current and increases power factor

7. The unit of inductance is –
a) ohm
b) inductive reactance
c) inducta
d) Henry

8. Which type of by-pass capacitor works best at high frequencies –
a) electrolytic
b) mica
c) ceramic
d) plexiglass

9. The usual value of the surge impedance of a telephone line is –
a) 600 W
b) 500 W
c) 75 W
d) none

10. Telemetering is a method of –
a) counting pulses, sent over long distances
b) transmitting pictures from one place to another
c) transmitting information concerning a process over a distance
d) None

11. In an unbiased P-N junction thickness of depletion layer is of the order of –
a) 0.005 mm
b) 0.5 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 10-10 m

12. One of the semiconductor device, which behaves like two SCRs is–
a) UJT
b) triac
c) JFET
d) MOSFET

13. The following, which is not an advantage of semiconductor strain gauges as compared to conventional strain gauges, is –
a) excellent hysterists characteristics
b) least sensitive to temperature changes
c) high fatigue life
d) smaller size

14. The fundamental ripple frequency of a half wave 3F rectifier with a 3F supply of frequency 50 Hz is –
a)150 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 100 Hz
d) 250 Hz.

15. For an FR biased PNP transistor –
a) base is negative with respect to emitter
b) collector is positive with respect to emitter
c) collector is a little more positive than base
d) base is a little less positive with respect to emitter than collector

16. With normal operation of a JFET one can get IDss –
a) the maximum drain current
b) the minimum drain current
c) normal drain current
d) none

17. An SCR is a semiconductor device made up of –
a) Four N type layers
b) Two P types and three N type layers
c) Two P type and two N type layers
d) Three P type and one N type layers

18. For a UJT, if R1 = resistance from emitter to base 1, R2 = resistance from emitter to the base 2 and RBB = R1 + R2 then the intrinsic stand off ratio (h) is –
a)
b)
c)
d)
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19. As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current –
a) becomes zero
b) abruptly decreases
c) abruptly increases
d) remains constant

20. When the energy gap of a semiconductor is 1.1eV then it would be –
a) opaque to the visible light
b) transparent to the visible light
c) transparent to the infrared radiation
d) opaque to the infrared radiation

21. The equivalent capacitance across ab will be –
d) 0

22. In the following fig. the power dissipated is maximum when the value of Rx is –
a) 33.4 K
b) 17.6 K
c) 10 K
d) 5 K

23. The transfer function of a low pass RC network is –

24. The total capacitance across points 'a' and 'b' in the given figure is –
a) 1.66 mF
b) 2.66 mF
c) 3.5 mF
d) 4.5 mF

25. .The load resistance needed to extract maximum power from the following circuit is –
a) 2W
b) 9W
c) 6W
d) 18W

26. Which one of the following conditions for z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements –
a) z11 = z22
b) z12z21 = z11z22
c) z11z12 = z22z21
d) z12 = z21

27. In the network shown, the switch is opened at t = 0. Prior to that, the network was in the steady state, Vs(t) at t = 0 is –
a) 0
b) 5V
c) 10V
d) 15V

28. Which of the following statements are correct –
1. Tellegen's theorem is applicable to any lumped network
2. The reciprocity theorem is applicable to linear bilateral networks.
3. Thevenin's theorem is applicable to two terminal linear active networks.
4. Norton's theorem is applicable to two terminal linear active networks.
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 3 and 4

29. Which one of the following transfer functions represents the critically damped system ?

30. When the respective coil impedance of the circuit shown in the fig. is are Z1 = (5 + j8)W and Z2=(3+j8) then the input impedance of the circuit will be –
a) (8 + 16j)W
b) (2 + j0)W
c) (15 + 64j)W
d) (8 + 0j)W

31. One of the following statement which is not correct -
a) In case of an antenna, the radiation resistance and loss resistance are not two different quantities.
b) The loss resistance includes loss by eddy currents, improper earth connections, insulation leakages etc) but not I2R losses
c) Radiation resistance varies directly as square root of the frequency
d) None of the above

32. Ultraviolet radiation emitted when electron jumps from an outer stationary orbit to -.
a) first stationary orbit
b) second stationary orbit
c) third stationary orbit
d) fourth stationary orbit

33. When the signal is propogated in a waveguide which has a full wave of electric intensity change between the two farther walls and no component of the electric field in the direction of propogation then the mode is –
a) TE11
b) TE10
c) TM22
d) TE20

34. Consider the following statements pertaining to parabolic antenna -
1.It is commonly used above 1GHz
2. It get’s circularly polarized
3. It’s radiation pattern is highly directional
4. It’s radiation pattern is cardiod
of these statements-
a) 1,2 and 4 are correct
b) 1 and 3 are correct
c) 1,2 and 3 are correct
d) 2 and 4 are correct
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35. When a vertical dipole antenna is used in conjunction with a loop antenna for direction finding, then the field pattern obtained will be-

36. When one end of a loss less transmission line of length 3/8 l and characteristic impedance R0 is short circuited and the other end is terminated in Ro then the impedance at l/8 away from the end terminated in R0 is-
a) Zero
b) R0
c) R0/2
d) Infinite

37. For transmission of wave from a dielectric permittivity Î1 into dielectric medium of lower permittivity Î2 (Î1 > Î2) the critical angle of incidence Qc ( relative to the interface ) is given by -



38. A transmission line has primary constants R, L, G and C and secondary constants Z0 and g (= a + jb) if the line is loss less then .

39. The intrinsic impedance of a free space is-

40. One of the following which is a low gain but omni directional antenna is-
a) discone
b) log-periodic
c) loop
d) helical

41. Electronic voltmeters have –
a) high input impedance
b) low input impedance
c) zero input impedance
d) none

42. Which of the following statement about impulse voltage is true ?
a) An impulse voltage is an unidirectional voltage.
b) In chopped impulse voltage, flashover does not occur.
c) Time taken to rise is exactly equal to the time taken to fall.
d) RMS value of impulse voltage is always less than 50% of average value.

43. The precision of an instrument indicates its ability to reproduce a certain reading with a given –
a) drift
b) resolution
c) shift.
d) consistency

44. In heterodyne digital conductor, the input signal is heterodyned to a –
a) higher frequency
b) lower frequency
c) both a and b)
d) none

45. In a digital measuring device, if the input electrical signal is in the frequency range dc to fmax Hz, then it must be sampled at a rate of –
a) fmax times/sec
b) fmax times/ses
c) every 2fmax/sec
d) 2 fmax times/sec .

46. Moving Iron intruments measures the rms value of –
a) a direct quantity
b) an alternating quantity
c) a virtual quantity.
d) none.

47. One of the following intruments which is used almost exclusively to measure radio frequency current is-
a) Moving coil meter
b) Rectifier-type moving coil meter
c) Iron-vane meter
d) Thermocouple meter.


48. A good ohmic contact on a p- type semiconductor chip is formed by introducing –
a) gold as an impurity below the contact
b) a high concentration of donors below the contract
c) a high concentration of acceptors below the contact
d) a thin insulator layer between the metal and semiconductor.

49. The use of thermocouple meters for ac measurement leads to a meterscale which is –
a) linear
b) square law
c) logarithmic
d) exponential

50. If low pressure of the order of 10-6mm of Hg is to be measure then the instrument of choice would be-
a) compound pressure gauge
b) thermocouple vacuum gauge
c) pirani gauge
d) ionization type vacuum gauge

51.
In the given circuit if the power dissipated in the 6W resister is zero then V is –
a)
b)
c)
d)
52. The equivalent circuit of a resistor is shown in the given figure. The resistor will be non inductive if –
a)
b)
c)
d)

53. SCR turns OFF from conducting state to blocking state on –
a) reducing gate current
b) reversing gate voltage
c) reducing anode current below holding current value
d) applying ac to the gate

54. Static V-I characteristics of an SCR with different gate drives applied to the gate are indicated by-
a) I92 > I 91 > I 90
b) V92 > V91 > V90
c) P92 > P91 > P90
d) either a or b

55. Each diode of a 3 phase, 6-pulse bridge diode rectifier conducts for-
a) 60o
b) 1200
c) 1800
d) 900

56. A load, consisting of R = 10W and wL = 10W is being fed from 230 V, 50 Hz source through a 1 phase voltage controller. For a firing angle delay of 300 , the rms value of load current would be-
a) 23 A

57. The total number of SCRs conducting simultaneously in a 3 phase full converter with overlap considered has the sequence of-
a) 3,3, 22
b) 3, 3, 3, 2
c) 3, 2, 3, 2
d) 2, 2, 2, 3

58. A single phase voltage controller, using two SCRs in antiparallel is found to be operating as a controlled rectifier. This is because
a) load is R and pulse gating is used
b) load is R and high frquendy carrier gating is used
c) load is RL and pulse gating is used
d) load is RL and continuous gating is used

59. The inverse Fourier Transform of


60. In a GTO anode current begins to fall when gate current-
a) is negative peak at time t = 0
b) is negative peak at t = shortage period ts
c) just begins to become negative at t = 0
d) is negative peak at t = (ts + fall time)

61. Power amplifiers and Audio use
a) Ferrite core
b) Air core
c) Solid iron core
d) Laminated iron core

62. The amplifiers which are inserted at intervals amplify the signal and compensate for transmission less on the cable are called-
a) Line amplifiers
b) Equalizing amplifiers
c) Rep eaters
d) Compandors

63. A solid state device named TRIAC acts as a ----- switch
a) 3 terminal unidirectional
b) 2 terminal unidirectional
c) 3 terminal bi-directional
d) 2 terminal bi-directional

64. Identify the fastest logic circuit when speed of operation is concerned-
a) TTL
b) RTL
c) DTL
d) ATL

65. An amplifier CE is characterized by-
a) Low voltage gain
b) Moderate power gain
c) Very high output impedance
d) Signal phase reversal

66. The standard symbol for EX-OR gate is –
a) b)
c) d)

67. Boolean algebra is based on –
a) numbers
b) logic
c) truth
d) symbols

68. Magnetic amplifiers are used for –
a) voltage amplification
b) power amplification
c) current amplification
d) frequency amplification

69. Number of resistors required for an N bit D/A converter in R-2R ladder D/A converter is-
a) 4N
b) 1N
c) 3N
d) 2N

70. 'Not allowed' condition in NAND gate SR flip flop is –
a) s = 0, R = 0
b) s = 1, R = 1
c) s = 0, R = 1
d) s = 1, R = 0
71. . In a PID controlles the transfer function G(s) is



72. A time invariant linear stable system is forced with an input x(t) = A sin wt under steady state conditions, the output Y(t) of the system will be –
a) A sin (wt + f), where f = tan-1G(jw)
b) A G (jw) A sin [wt + G(jw)]
c) G (jw) A sin [2 wt + G (jw)]
d) G (jw) A sin [wt + G (jw)]
x(t)-------G(s)---------y(t)

73. Mark the wrong statement for two phase servo motor –
a) The rotor diameter is small
b) The rotor resistance is low
c) The applied voltages are seldom balanced
d) The torque speed characterstic are linear.

74. The gain phase plot of open loop transfer function of four different systems labelled A, B, C, and D
are shown in the figure. The correct sequence of the increasing order of stability of the four systems will be-
a) A, B, C, D
b) D, C, B, A
c) B, A, D, C,
d) B, C, D, A

75. A unity feedback system has G(S) = . In the loot locus, the break away point occurs between
a) S = 0 and –1
b) S = -1 and ¥
c) S = -1 and –2
d) S =-2 and – ¥
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76. Twice in a year a few minute disturbance occurs in space communication during sun-blinding when --- are in line
a) Sun and satellite
b) Sun and earth station
c) Satellite and earth station
d) Sun, satellite and earth station

77. The traffic handling capacity of an Earth station on the up link depends on-
a) It’s EIRP
b) Satellite antenna gain
c) Noise associated with the satellite
d) All of the above

78. A supergroup pilot is –
a) applied at each multiplexing bay
b) used to regulate the gain of individual repeaters
c) applied at each adjustable equalizer
d) fed in at a GTE

79. If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increased by a factor of 4, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of
a) Ö2
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

80. In the given circuit the capacitor C is almost shorted for the frequency range of interest of the input signal . Under this condition the voltage gain of the amplifier will be-
hfe = 100 hie = 1K –
a) 0.33
b) 0.5
c) 0.66
d) 1

81. Microwave frequency bond is-
a) 30 MHz –300 MHz
b) 300 MHz –3 GHz
c) 300 MHz –10 GHz
d) 300 MHz – 30 GHz

82. Directional couplers are designed as-
a) coupler of two-wave guide
b) measuring instrument to measure power of signal through wave-guide
c) director to the signal flow
d) None of the above

83. Gyrator has a -
a) Phase difference of 1800 for transmission from port 1 to port 2 & no phase shift for transmission from port 2 to port 1
b) Phase difference of 1800 for transmission from port 1 to port 2 & no phase shift for transmission from port 1 to port 2
c)1800 phase difference for transmission from either port
d) 00 Phase difference for transmission from either port

84. In klyrtron tube for getting oscillations-
a) electron beam travels & RF field remains stationary
b) both electron beam & RF field travels in same direction
c) both electron & RF field remains stationary
d) RF field travels & electron beam remains stationary

85. The most noisy among below is –
a) IMPATT diode
b) Klyrtron
c) GUNN diode
d) TWT amplifier

86. The GUNN mode of gunn effect oscillator is also called as –
a) Domain mode
b) Delayed domain mode
c) Quenched domain mode
d) LSA mode

87. The total noise voltage across series ckt is –
a)
b)
c)
d)

88. The vertical height of F1 layer in ionospheric layer is –
a) 180 km
b) 70 km
c) 110 km
d) 400 km

89. 8085 mP contains instruction in instruction set-
a) 64
b) 74
c) 246
d) 256

90. If the clock freq. is 5 MHz how much time is required to execute on instruction 18 T-states-
a) 3.6 m sec)
b) 36 m sec)
c) 36 m sec)
d) 36 sec)

91. In 8085 mP a word is equal to-
a) 8 bit
b) 16 bit
c) 32 bit
d) 64 bit

92. The instruction used to set continuous loops-
a) JC
b) JMP
c) JP
d) JPE

93. What happen when RET instruction executed -
a) data retrieved from stock to register
b) data from register saved on the stock
c) 16 bit address of instruction saved on stock.
d)16 bit address from stock retrieved

94. DMA is a process-
a) Interrupt data transfer.
b) high speed data transfer under control of microprocessor
c) high speed data transfer under control of DMA controller.
d) Interrupt data read

95. No. of boolean function can be generated from 3 variables-
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 256

96. The data storage in dynamic RAM is cell of-
a) capacitance
b) transistor
c) flip flop
d) transistor acting as capacitor

97. What is 9’s complement of 23-
a) 76
b) 77
c) 78
d) 79

98. An array is collection of -
a) different data type scattered throughout memory
b) same data type scattered throughout memory
c) same data type placed next to each other in memory
d) different data type placed next to each other in memory

99. While reading from the memory location for active high i/p pins-
a) Read and chip select i/p must be at logical 0 level
b) Read at 0 and chip select at logical 1 level
c) Read at 1 and chip select at logical 0 level
d) Read and chip select i/p must be at logical 1 level
BSNL JTO Recruitment / Placement Question Paper previous years 2007 2008 free download online here. solutions coming soon..
100. When all i/p bits of AND gate are zero then o/p will be-
a) 0
b) 1
c) un-defined
d) none

101. The fan out comparison between TTL logic and DRL logic is
a) Both logic having higher fan out
b) TTL logic having higher fan out than DRL logic
c) TTL logic having lower fan out than DRL logic
d) Both logic having lower fan out

102. I was asked to perform the task of numbering points we had scored –
a) sad
b) said
c) tallow
d) strenous
103. The taste is rancid as the rank is –
a) odour
b) look
c) smell
d) sound
104. Troupe is a group of performers in a –
a) play
b) circus
c) cinema
d) orchestra
105. Complete the sentence with correct alternative
He is --- well today-
a) no
b) none
c) not
d) nought
106. Fritter is –
a) sour
b) chafe
c) dissipate
d) cancel

107. The sun rays falls vertically on-
a) Tropics
b) Doldrums
c) Poles
d) Equator

108. In India ‘Lotus’ award is given in the field of-
a) Literature
b) Films
c) Sports
d) Social Service

109. The Chauri-Chaura incident is related to
a) A major offensive by underground revolutionaries
b) Large scale looting of government property by congress worker
c) Massive police firing on unarmed satyagrahis
d) the burning of a police post by a mob

110. Dadamuni Ashok Kumar deceased on-
a) 10 December 2001
b) 20 December 2001
c) 10 January 2001
d) 20 January 2001

111. The first batsman in Test history to aggregate 350 plus runs in a Test Match is-
a) Sanath Jaisurya
b) Brian Lara
c) Sachin Tendulkar
d) Steve Waugh

112. Antibiotics which are effective against more than one type of bacteria are known as-
a) Surya drugs
b) Multibiotics
c) Broad-spectrum
d) Anti metabodies

113. The books Sushrut Sanhita and Charak S anhita are related to-
a) Hindu rituals
b) Interpretation of Puranas
c) Interpretation of Vedas
d) Ayurvedic system of medicine

114. An enzyme is a protein that -
a) Is used by the body as a food
b) Acts as an organic catalyst
c) Forms the hair and nails of the body
d) Make up the membranes of the cells

115. Atal Behari Vajpayee was Prime Minister for 13 days in-
a) May 1996
b) June 1997
c) September 1996
d) July 2000

116. RBI lowers the deposit rates ceiling for non banking finance companies from 14 percent to – percent per annum-
a) 12.5
b) 11.5
c) 10.5
d) 9.5

117. Booker prize is won in the field of -
a) Science
b) Medicine
c) Fiction writing
d) Adventure

118. Leprosy is caused by-
a) Bacterium
b) Virus
c) Protozoa
d) Helminthes

119. . Zojila is a pass between-
a) Kashmir valley and Ladakh
b) Lahaul valley and Spiti
c) Chumbi valley and Sikkim
d) Aurnachal Pradesh and Tibet

120. Deforestation results in-
1. Flora destruction
2. Fauna destruction
3. Ecological misbalance
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3
BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination

BSNL GE JTO Recruitment Examination Question Paper

BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination
Test Paper - IV
1. Reactive current through the capacitive load produces -
a) Magnetic field
b) Electric field
c) Supermagnetic field
d) None

2. One of the following which gives piero-electric effect is -
a) Mu metal
b) PVDF
c) Sapphire
d) Ferrites

3. PZT piezo- electric materials have -
a) Higher curie temperature
b) Lower curie temperature
c) Absolute temperature
d) None

4. The residual resistivity of a binary alloy at OK is -
a) The sum of the residual resistivities of the component metals
b) The difference of the residual resistivities of the component metals.
c) The product of the residual resistivities of the component metals
d) Dependent on the concentration of the minor component in the alloy

5. In active filter circuits, inductances are avoided mainly because they -
a) Are always associated with some resistance
b) Are bulky and unsuitable for miniaturisation
c) Are non-linear in nature
d) Saturate quickly

6. The depletion layer across a p-n junction lies -
a) mostly in the p-region
b) mostly in the n-region
c) equally to both p and n region
d) entirely in the p-region

7. The voltage induced in a loop of wire rotating in a strong and steady magnetic field is -
a) pulsating dc
b) dc
c) rectified ac
d) ac

8. One of the following types of capacitor which is polarized is -
a) Electrolytic
b) Ceramic
c) Paper
d) Mylar

9. Electric shock is-
a) Always fatal
b) Never fatal
c) Sometimes fatal
d) Always disfiguring

10. A typical value of filter capacitor for 50 Hz ripple is -
a) 16mF
b) 10F
c) 10mF
d) None

11. A telephone relay armature is made of material with -
a) High electrical conductivity
b) Low electrical conductivity
c) Negligible conductivity
d) None

12. Larger the value of filter capacitor -
a) Larger is the peak-peak value of ripple voltage
b) Larger is the peak current in the rectifying diode
c) Longer is the time that current pulse flows through the diode
d) Smaller is the dc voltage across the load

13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by -
a) Thermally generated electrons and holes
b) Diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
c) Migration of minority carriers across the junction
d) Flow of drift current

14. The polarity of VGS for E-only MOSFET is -
a) positive
b) negative
c) zero
d) depends on P or N channel
BSNL JTO Recruitment Question Paper previous years 2007 2008
15. The following which will serve as a donor impurity in silicon -
a) Boron
b) Indium
c) Germanium
d) Antimony

16. When bias applied to a vari-cap diode is increased, its capacitance -
a) is decreased
b) is increased
c) remains constant
d) first increases and then decreases.

17. In case of a bipolar transistor a is -
a) positive and greater than 1
b) positive and less than 1
c) negative and greater than 1
d) negative and less than 1

18. A BJT is -
a) not very sensitive to radiations
b) very sensitive to radiations.
c) independent of radiations
d) none

19. An SCR may be considered to be -
a) 2 diodes
b) 3 diodes
c) 4 diodes
d) 5 diodes

20. For a BJT, under the saturation condition -
a) IC = bIB
b) IC > bIB
c) IC is independent of all other parameters
d) IC < bIB

21. In modern MOSFET’s the material used for the gate is -
a) High purity silicon
b) High purity silica
c) Heavily doped polycrystalline silicon
d) Epitaxial grown silicon

22. Find the Norton's equivalent of the circuit given below -


23. When the source in the circuit shown is a sinusoidal source then the input voltage is -
a) 10V
b) 5V
c) 27V
d) 24V

24. The time constant of the network shown in the given figure is given by -

25. The voltage transfer ratio of two-port networks connected in cascade may be conveniently obtained from the -
a) product of the individual ABCD matrices of the two networks
b) product of voltage transfer ratios of the two individual networks
c) sum of the Z- matrices of the two networks
d) sum of the h – matrices of the two networks

26. When a network has response with time as shown in fig. then which one of the following diagrams represents the location of the poles of this network ?

27. For the network shown in the given fig. the ratio is -

28. An attenuator drops a 10V signal to 50mv in an experiment. The loss in decibels is -
a) –40dB
b) –6dB
c) –55dB
d) –60dB

29. When the network has 10 nodes and 17 branches then the number of different node pair voltages would be -
a) 7
b) 9
c) 10
d) 45

30. The circuit shown in the following fig. will act as an ideal current source with respect to terminals A and B when frequency is -
a) zero
b) 1rad/s
c) 4rad/s
d) 16rad/s

31.When a short vertical grounded antenna is required to radiate at 1MHz and the effective height of the antenna is 30 m then the calculated value of the radiation resistance is -
a) 1.58 W
b) 158 W
c) 15.8 W
d) None of these

32. Shannon’s law relates -
a) antenna gain to bandwidth
b) frequency to antenna gain
c) antenna gain to transmission losses
d) information carrying capacity to S/N ratio

33. One of the following modes which has the characteristic of attenceation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at microwave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is -
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) Higher order mode

34.For a transmission line, the propogation constant, for a TEM wave travelling in it is given by (Where the symbols have the usual meanings ) -
a) [ (R+jwL) (G+jwc)]
b) [ R+jwL) (G+jwc)] ½
c) [ (R-jwL) (G + jwc) ] ½
d) [(R-jwL) ( G+jw2c)]1/3

35. The advantages of wave guides over co-axial lines would include which of the following features-
1. Easier to use 2. lower power losses
3. Higher operating frequencies possible
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3

36. When a 75 ohm transmission line is to be terminated in two resistive loads R1 and R2 such that the standing pattern in the two cases have the same SWR , then the values of R1 and R2 (in ohms) should be -
a) 250 and 200 respectively
b) 225 and 25 respectively
c) 100 and 150 respectively
d) 50 and 125 respectively

37. The degenerate modes in a wave guide are characterized by -
a) Same cut off frequencies but different field distribution
b) Same cut off frequencies and same field distributions
c) Different cut off frequencies but same field distributions
d) Different cut off frequencies and different field distributions

38.A TEM wave impinges obliquely on a dielectric-dielectric boundary with Er1=2 and Er2=1, the angle of incidence for total reflection is -
a) 30 0
b) 60 0
c) 45 0
d) 90 0

39. The radiation pattern of Hertzian dipole in the plane perpendicular to the dipole is a -
a) Null
b) Circle
c) Figure of eight
d) None of the above
BSNL JTO Recruitment Placement Question Paper free donwload previous years 2007 2008
40. Permeance is the -
a) square of reluctance
b) reluctance
c) reciprocal of the reluctance
d) cube of the reluctance.

41. One of the following which is an active transducer is -
a) Photoelectric
b) Photovoltaic
c) Photo-conductive
d) Photo emission

42. The wein bridge uses only -
a) Inductors
b) Capacitors
c) Resistors
d) Capacitors and Resistors.

43. The greater the value of Q -
a) higher will be the bandwidth of the resonant circuit.
b) smaller will be the bandwidth of the resonant circuit.
c) nothing can be said)
d) none.

44. The most serious source of error in a) c) bridge measurement is -
a) eddy currents
b) leakage currents
c) residual imperfectness
d) stray fields.

45. Moving iron instruments -
a) have a linear scale
b) do not have a linear scale
c) both a and b)
d) none.

46. If accuracy is the main consideration, which one of the following voltmeters should one select -
a) 100 v ; 2 mA
b) 100 v ; 100 ohm/volt
c) 100 v ; 1mA
d) 10,000 v ; 10 mA

47. In dc tacho generators used for measurement of speed of a shaft, frequent calibration has to be done because -
a) the contacts wear off
b) the strength of permanent magnet decreases with age
c) the armature current produces heating effect
d) there is back emf.

48. Ideal transformer cannot be described by -
a) h parameters
b) ABCD parameters
c) G parameters
d) parameters

49. Consider the following statements -
A3- phase balanced supply system is connected to a 3 phase unbalanced load) Power supplied to this load can be measured using
1. Two wattmeters
2. One wattmeter
3. Three wattmeters
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 alone

50. The function of the reference electrode in a pH meter is to -
a) Produce a constant voltage
b) Provide temperature compensation
c) Provide a constant current
d) Measure average pH value

51. Match the column A (Devices) with column B (Characteristics) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the column -
Column A Column B
A) BJT 1. Voltage controlled negative resistance
B) MOSFET 2. High current gain
C) Tunnel diode 3. Voltage regulation
D) Zener diode 4. High input impedance
Codes :
A B C D
a) 1 4 2 3
b) 2 4 1 3
c) 2 3 1 4
d) 1 3 2 4

52. A thyristor during forward blocking state is associated with.-
a) large current , low voltage.
b) low current , large voltage.
c) medium current , large voltage
d) low current, medium voltage.

53. In controlled rectifiers, the nature of load current i.e. whether load current is continuous or discontinuous -
a) does not depend on type of load and firing angle delay
b) depends both on the type of load and firing angle delay
c) depends only on the type of load)
d) depends only on the firing angle delay.

54. A single phase voltage controller feeds power to a resistance of 10 W . The source voltage is 200 V rms. For a firing angle of 900 , the rms value of thyristor current in amperes is -
a) 20
b) 15
c) 10
d) 5

55. In the performance of single phase and three phase full converters the effect of source inductance is to
a) reduce the ripples in the load current -
b) make discontinuous current as continuous
c) reduce the output voltage
d) increase the load voltage.

56. The cycloconverters (CCs) require natural or forced commutation as under -
a) natural commutation in both step up and step down CCs
b) forced commutation in both step up and step down CCs
c) forced commutation in step up CCs
d) forced commutation in step down CCs

57. Power transistors are more commonly of -
a) silicon npn type.
b) silicon pnp type.
c) silicon nnp type.
d) silicon npp type.

58. C is a -
a)Middle level language
b) High level language
c) Low level language
d) None of above

59. What will be output of program
main ( )
{ int i ;
print f ("Enter value of i");
scant ("%d", & i);
if ( i = 5 )
print f ("you entered 5");
else
print f ("you entered %d", i ); }
if user entered 100 then
a) 5
b) 100
c) 1005
d) None

60. (7F)16 + (BA)16 = (?)16-
a) 481
b) 139
c) –481
d) –139

61. Two’s complement of 3 bit nonzero linory number is some or original number is all bits accepts-
a) MSB are zeros
b) LSB are zeros
c) MSB are ones
d) LSB are ones.

62. The schematic circuits of RTL NOR gate is-








63. Transistors with high frequency have -
a) Thick base
b) Thin base
c) Some other feature
d) None of the above

64. Telephone traffic is specified in terms of -
a) Average waiting time
b) Grade of service
c) Peak waiting time
d) Erlangs

65. In a Hartley oscillator -
a) Necessary phase relation is obtained by connecting grid and plate electrodes to the opposite ends of the tuned circuit.
b) The mutual inductance must have the appropriate polarity.
c) Both grid circuit and plate tuned circuit offer inductive reactance
d) None of the above

66.The condenser C is charged in a bootstrap sweep generator -
a) Linearly but the discharge is non linear
b) Non linearly but the discharge is linear
c) Linearly and the discharge is linear
d) Non linearly and the discharge is non linear

67.In an audio amplifier audio signals become garbled and hence difficult to understand when an ac input current is large enough to drive the output to -
a) saturation only
b) Cut off only
c) Either saturation or cut off
d) A value off the load line

68. Five 1 bit registers are referred as -
a) Flags
b) Slags
c) Tags
d) None of the above

69. Next binary number after 0,1, 10, 11 is -
a) 12
b) 101
c) 100
d) 110

70. Identify coincidence logic circuit in the following –
a) b)
c) d)
71. The output analog voltage Vo is given by -


72. If an inverter is placed at the input to an SR flip flop, the result is -
a) T flip flop
b) D flip flop
c) JK flip flop
d) BCD decade counter

73. See the Root locus diagram of a system and the following statements :-
1. The open loop system is a second order system.
2. The system is over damped for
3. The system is absolutely stable for all value of R.
Which of these statements are correct?
a) 1, 2, & 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2

74. For the transfer function G(S)H(S) = the phase cross over frequency is -
a) 0.5 rad/sec
b) 0.707 rad/sec
c) 1.732 rad/sec
d) 2 rad/sec
BSNL GE JTO Recruitment Examination previous years 2007 2008 Question Paper free donwload online. solutions coming soon!
75. If the open loop transfer function of the system is G(S) H(S) =
then a closed loop pole will be located at S = -12 wher the value of K is -
a) 4355
b) 5760
c) 9600
d) 9862

76. Considering the following open loop transfer function -
The correct sequence of these systems in increasing order of the time taken for the unit step response to settle is –
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 3, 1, 2
c) 2, 3, 1
d) 3, 2, 1.

77. Considering unit feed back control system in the given figure, the ratio of time constant of closed loop response to open loop response will be -

a) 1: 1
b) 2 :1
c) 3 : 2
d) 2 : 3

78. Angle subtended by earth at geostationary communication satellite is -
a) 17.340
b) 51.40
c) 1200
d) 600

79.For data transmission phase modulation is commonly used because -
a) Phase can be varied from +1800 to -1800
b) It is resistant to the effects of noise.
c) Demodulation is very easy
d) It gives highest data rates that can be transmitted over a given channel.

80 . Several channels are interleaved and then transmitted together is known as –
a) Frequency division multiplex
b) Time division multiplex
c) A group
d) A super group

81. Identify the wrong statement-
The radar cross section of a target -
a) Depends on the frequency used
b) May be reduced by special coating of the target
c) Depends on the aspect of a target, if this is non spherical
d) Is equal to the actual cross-sectional area for small targets.

82. Considering following parameters -
1. Loss in the media) 2. Permeability of the media) 3. Frequency of the wave 4. Velocity of the wave. Which of these parameters are responsible for the change of phase of a propagating electromagnetic wave?
a) 1, 2, and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4

83. In super heterodyne receivers double spotting is caused by -
a) poor front-end rejection
b) misalignment of receiver
c) detuning of one or more IF stages.
d) non functioning of AGC

84. The number of lines per field in the United States TV system is -
a) 262 1/2
b) 525
c) 30
d) 60

85. In a TV receiver the color killer -
a) cuts off the chroma stages during monochrome receivers.
b) ensures that no color is transmitted to monochrome receivers
c) prevents color overloading
d) makes sure that the color burst is not mistaken for sync pulses, by cutting off reception during the back porch.

86. The nominal capacitance of a coaxial RF cable is of 40 pF/m and the characteristic impedance of 50W. The inductance of the cable is-
a) 1mH/m
b) 10 mH/m
c) 0.1 mH/m
d) 0.01 mH/m

87. Transmission of wave through Dominant mode is -
a) distortion less transmission
b) generates undesirable harmonic distortion
c) having loss of power
d) None of above.

88. Lower the standing wave ratio (SWR) -
a) Greater mismatch error
b) Lower mismatch error
c) No effect on matching
d) Moderate mismatch error

89. In klyrtron oscillator for getting wide range of oscillations resonators should be -
a) Critically coupled
b) Under coupled
c) Over coupled
d) No coupling required

90. The critical frequency is always -
a) Lower than maximum usable frequency
b) Equal to maximum usable frequency
c) Higher than maximum usable frequency
d) None of above

91. The PIN diode based on -
a) Nonlinear resistance
b) Nonlinear reactance
c) Negative resistance
d) Controllable impedence

92. Which antenna having circular polarization -
a) Horn antenna
b) Lens antenna
c) Helical antenna
d) Discone antenna

93. The i/p S/N ratio of system is 50 and the o/p S/N ratio is 5 the noise figure is -
a) 250
b) 55
c) 10
d) 45

94. In the 8085 mP, the RST 6 instruction transfers the program execution to the following location -
a) 30 H
b) 24 H
c) 48 H
d) 60 H

95. In instruction cycle first operation is -
a) Memory read
b) Address read
c) Opcode fetch
d) Data read

96. CMP instruction comes under group -
a) Data transfer
b) Branching operations
c) Machine control operation
d) Logical operations.

97.In which logic operation does not effect any flags -
a) ANA B
b) ORA B
c) XRI A2H
d) CMA

98.What happen when CALL instruction executed -
a) Data retrieved from stock to register
b) Data from register saved on the stock.
c) 16 bit address of instruction saved on stock
d) 16 bit address from stock retrieved)

99 The mark status of mark able interrupts is defined according to content of -
a) stack pointer.
b) HL register .
c) Program counter
d) Accumulator
BSNL GE JTO Recruitment Examination Question Paper previous years 2006 2007 2008 free download online. Solutions Coming Soon!
100.The decoder is a logic ckt that -
a) Amplifies the current or power at i/p.
b) Identifies each combination of the signals present at i/p
c) Provides appropriate code as o/p for each i/p signal
d) Both b & c)

101. The young man was quickly promoted when his employers how --------------- he was -
a) indigent
b) indifferent
c) assiduous
d) cursory.

102. As letter is alphabet so zodiac is -
a) almanac
b) beacon
c) sign
d) signal.

103.What is the correct meaning of prudish.?
a) careful
b) fast
c) God
d) brave

104. Pick out the odd matching with reference to number -
a) woman – women.
b) hair – hairs
c) child – children.
d) foot – feet.

105.Choose the phrase that is most nearly similiar in meaning to the word given below-
Abut is
a) Stimulate
b) Grasp
c) Oppose
d) Adjoin

106. The highest mountain peak in Indian Territory is -
a) Mount Everest
b) Kanchenjunga
c) Nanda Devi
d) Mount Kailash

107. German silver is an alloy comprising -
a) Copper, Nickel and Zinc
b) Silver, copper and Zinc
c) Silver Nickel and Zinc
d) Nickel, Zinc and Lead

108. Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar’s mausoleum is in -
a) Delhi
b) Lahore
c) Yangon
d) Agra

109. On which date the World Trade Centre in New York and Pentagon in Washington d)C was attacked by terrorist -
a) 12 September 2001
b) 11 September 2001
c) 11 July 2001
d) 20 December 2001

110. India defeats South Africa in the finals of the inaugural champions challenge Hockey Tournament in Kualalumpur by -
a) 4-2
b) 2-0
c) 3-2
d) 2-1

111.Which planets in the solar system are known as ‘Inferior Planets’ -
a) Earth and Mars
b) Earth and Mercury
c) Mars and Mercury
d) Mercury and Venus.

112. The largest Stupa in Southern India is at -
a) Nellore
b) Amravati
c) Tanjore
d) Kozhikode

113. The new chairman and Managing Director of Industrial Finance Corporaton of India (IFCI) is -
a) Mr. Vishwanath Prasad Singh
b) Mr. Jitendra Patil
c) Mr. Ragh
d) Mr. Shubhash chand Jain

114. Which one is the latest among rock-cut temples?
a) Ajanta
b) Ellora
c) Elephanta
d) All originated in the same period)

115. Number of organisations government ban in Jammu and Kashmir and the North East under the new ordinance ‘POTO’ is -
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23

116. In bed of which river does Badrinath shrine stand?
a) Ganga
b) Mandakini
c) Alakananda
d) Bhagirathi

117. The nerve endings for the sense of sight are located in the part of the eye called the -
a) Cornea
b) Sclera
c) Iris
d) Retina

118. Fundamental duties were introduced in the constitution by the -
a) 40th Amendment
b) 42nd Amendment
c) 43rd Amendment
d) 44th Amendment

119. The Khalsa Panth was founded by -
a) Guru Hargovind
b) Guru Nanak Dev
c) Guru Tegh Bahadur
d) Guru Govind singh

120. Number of countries involved in international fleet review hosted by India is -
a) 27
b) 28
c) 29
d) 30
BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination